Well,
I'm sorry for not responding sooner. My life forbids me to post as often as I would like, especially on topics with which I'm familiar, and which are my expertise. First, continue on with all capitals and "dares" and what have you and I will shut you up, only because you are acting out of decorum and pursuing a hostile argumentation.
First things first: read what I wrote. It will do you no good to counter my views if you cannot correctly comprehend them, or refuse to read what has been written. After that in importance, and this I'm only going to repeat once: back up your sources for your positive claims. I let slide those which are well known, but when challenged, you need to provide sources. Finally, before digging into the bulk of the matter, don't ask to prove a negative. "Prove me wrong" is a sure sign of someone who does not know what they're talking about, or are totally unfamiliar with historical-critical models/basic logic.
The Caesars were part of the gens Julia, originated from Alba Longa, a city south east of Rome. Thus, my claim of at one point, the Julii were not Roman was true.
That'd be true for every single family in Rome, then, since Rome has a date of foundation, and before that it was not populated. But the Julian and Cornelian family has been at Rome since the earliest times immemorable (C. Iulius Iullus was consul at 489; Ser. Cornelius Maluginensis at 485). You're right about Pompey, however, and that the Pompeians were descended from the Gauls which settled in Italy at Picenum.
As for Greek, I simply made the observation that Romans speak Greek and that Greek was a cultured language; I receive the impression of importance of Greek to Roman life when Marius entering the race for Senate and there were attacks of his Greek been impure- if the Romans have a disdain that Greek was low and inferior or corrupt, why attack him on the concept of Greek?
I never said that no Romans spoke Greek. But you're conflating the "upper class" with all Romans, and this is not true. Many Americans learn Chinese, and that is just as irrelevant to inheritance as it is that educated Romans spoke Greek. And Romans only started learning Greek en masse after the acquisition of Greece. And that was just among certain elite. Cato the Elder staunchly opposed Greek, and he himself educated his children so that they wouldn't be "corrupted" by Greek teachers.
It would make more sense that Italy be the inheritor of Greece rather than Greece be the inheritor of Rome.
If the Romans were Romans b/c they reside in Rome, and the Italians were similar to Romans b/c they resides within the Republic [I assume that is your claim] then why are Romans under the Empire any less Romans then Italians under the Republic?
That is most certainly not my claim. Read it again if you're still interested.
Why is Italy fully Roman under Sulla. I was not aware that mass citizenship was granted after the Social War, but if you can point me to where does it say Italy became fully Roman under Sulla I would be very glad to apologizes in this forum to everyone I have offended.
If you can read Greek or Latin:
http://web.upmf-gren...ivitate.gr.html for the Lex Iulia de civitate and
http://web.upmf-gren...tia_papiria.htm for the Lex Plautia Papiria de civitate
...both of which deal with granting citizenship to the Italians after the Social War. You can read about in Wikipedia as well for a primer.
http://en.wikipedia....s_to_the_AlliesI was unaware of standing armies. Nor am I aware that standing armies was common of that time among anyone. However, Italians did have armies, else how could they supply Roma's war with Italian troops and isn't this one of the biggest reason why the Social War occur?
The Italians supplied
citizens to fight in Rome's army. They were not allowed to have actual armies or troops, nor make any alliances with foreign nations, etc. Read Livy to get a better grasp on the situation.
Very well. If you believe the Empire is in decline, and you point out why, then I respect your opinion, and they might even be right. I speak what I was taught. If you have books or sources to back your theory up, I would be happy to apologize for my faulty mistakes/comments.
I could go on about the extent of the empire under Trajan (largest in Roman history), the civil wars of Constantine (ruining Domitian's vision), the sound economic policies starting from Trajan to Marcus Aurelius (most sources would attest). I will instead quote the foremost author of the 19th century on the fall of Rome, Edward Gibbon. If you are not convinced, I'll track down statistics and others to attest:
"If a man were called to fix the period in the history of the world during which the condition of the human race was most happy and prosperous, he would, without hesitation, name that which elapsed from the death of Domitian to the accession of Commodus. The vast extent of the Roman Empire was governed by absolute power, under the guidance of virtue and wisdom. The armies were restrained by the firm but gentle hand of four successive emperors, whose characters and authority commanded respect. The forms of the civil administration were carefully preserved by Nerva, Trajan, Hadrian and the Antonines, who delighted in the image of liberty, and were pleased with considering themselves as the accountable ministers of the laws. Such princes deserved the honour of restoring the republic had the Romans of their days been capable of enjoying a rational freedom."
I am sorry, but isn't history sort of like that? B/c of the whim of one man, Caesar marched and ended the Republic [or b/c the whim of several man, Roma was out of soldier and Marius have to recruit soldiers from the head count and mark the end of the Republic] or b/c of the whim of one man nationalism was spread throughout Europe. I don't see how the whim of one man somehow change my theory.
The whim of one man does not alter history past. Constantine's shift of Rome (which, mind you, remained an important center of civic services) does not alter the fact that for over 1000 years Rome was the capital of the Roman empire. Besides, the capital shift was done for many reasons, and Byzantium was always understood to be although a part of the Roman empire actually part of Greece.
I believe they are the Eastern Roman Empire, a part of the Roman Empire.
You can say it until your face turns blue, but the difference are far too profound to include under one homogenous label.
What of Italy after the fall of Roman Empire? They were ruled by Italians, the subjects were Italians, not Romans. I could say the very same thing. Then I realize you will then again repeat constantly about how Italians are Romans and etc etc.
For that you might actually have to read what I actually wrote.
But yes. You know what. Here we go.
I am sorry about my comments.
I am sorry that I thought Romans speak Greek.
I am sorry that I dare to think Greeks were somehow as Romans as the Italians were.
I am terribly sorry that I somehow unimaginably dare to believe the Easter Roman Empire was part of Roman Empire.
I am terribly sorry that I somehow stupidly [and I believe I can comment about myself without offending the mods. Or are mods offended by every comment?] unimaginable dare to believe Caesars and Sulla and all the 32 tribes of Rome were not Romans at all time.
I am truly sorry to actually think the Italian allies were not under Roman rule while believing the Province of Greece was under Roman rule.
Mods, try not to delete this. I am sorry. So forgave me.
This isn't doing you any good. And on top of the condescending and sarcastic attitude, it's full of strawmen.
Chris Weimer, M.A. Student
Department of Classics, SFSU
B.A. Honors and Thesis
University of Memphis
Latin & Greek Major
Judaic Studies Minor